Beyer Speed Figure question (Belmont)

[Danzig]

[ateamstupid]

I think we're having two different arguments. Who the hell is disputing the utility of a beaten-lengths conversion? It is obviously essential to figure-making, as is the fact that times and figures from two different days on two different racetracks have zero correlation.

The original question was "Does this 33 or 34 speed figure point difference make sense with the 2.6 second difference in observed final time?" This question completely misses the point of speed figures. The 2.6 second difference and the 33-34 Beyer difference don't need to "make sense" together. They're two completely independent times and figures from two different days.

The time differential from two races 42 years apart has nothing to do with the Beyer differential. The Beyers, after factoring in pars, are only made in relation to the other races that day. American Pharoah could have run the race in 2:30 and still gotten a 105 if the other times on Saturday dictated that. Again, the time differential between AP's Belmont and Secretariat's Belmont are immaterial to the speed figure discussion.